Ethiopian Psychiatric Nursing University Exit Exam Practice Questions (50 Items)

Thematic Area 6: Substance Use & Addictive Disorders

Q51. A client with a long history of heavy alcohol consumption is admitted to the medical ward. Twelve hours after admission, the client develops coarse hand tremors, tachycardia, hypertension, sweating, and anxiety. What stage of withdrawal is this? A) Alcohol withdrawal delirium (Delirium Tremens) B) Mild to moderate uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal C) Korsakoff’s psychosis phase D) Acute alcohol intoxication phase

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• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Early signs of alcohol withdrawal typically begin 6 to 24 hours after the last drink and include autonomic hyperactivity, tremors, insomnia, and anxiety.

Q52. A chronic alcohol-dependent client presents with severe confusion, ataxia (unsteady gait), and ophthalmoplegia (abnormal ocular movements). The nurse recognizes this acute neurological emergency as: A) Wernicke’s Encephalopathy B) Korsakoff’s Amnestic Syndrome C) Hepatic Encephalopathy D) Huntington’s Disease

• Correct Answer: A
• Rationale: Wernicke’s Encephalopathy is an acute, reversible neurological condition caused by thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency associated with chronic alcohol use, characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ocular abnormalities.

Q53. Which medication is prescribed as an aversion therapy agent for alcohol dependence, causing a severe, unpleasant physical reaction (nausea, vomiting, flushing, tachycardia) if the client drinks alcohol? A) Naltrexone B) Acamprosate C) Disulfiram D) Methadone

• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: Disulfiram blocks the enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase, causing an accumulation of acetaldehyde if alcohol is consumed, which leads to a severe physical reaction.

Q54. A client is admitted to the emergency unit following an overdose of an opioid (e.g., Heroin). Which clinical triad of signs should the nurse expect to find during assessment? A) Hypertension, dilated pupils, and tachypnea B) Respiratory depression, miosis (pinpoint pupils), and altered mental status / coma C) High fever, muscle rigidity, and hyperreflexia D) Generalized seizures, tachycardia, and auditory hallucinations

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Opioid toxicity presents with a classic triad of respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils (miosis), and central nervous system depression progressing to coma.

Q55. During a follow-up visit, a client with a history of alcohol use disorder demonstrates confabulation (fabricating imaginary stories to fill in memory gaps) and severe irreversible short-term memory loss. This is characteristic of: A) Wernicke’s encephalopathy B) Korsakoff’s psychosis / syndrome C) Delirium Tremens D) Alzheimer’s disease

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Korsakoff’s syndrome is a chronic, often irreversible cognitive impairment caused by thiamine deficiency, characterized by severe anterograde amnesia and confabulation.

Q56. A client arrives at the clinic displaying extreme pupillary dilation, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, intense paranoia, and insomnia after consuming an illicit substance. What substance class is responsible? A) Opioids B) Benzodiazepines C) Stimulants (e.g., Amphetamines or Cocaine) D) Alcohol

• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: Stimulants increase synaptic concentrations of dopamine and norepinephrine, causing sympathetic nervous system activation (mydriasis, tachycardia, hypertension) and psychomotor agitation.

Q57. What is the primary purpose of utilizing the CAGE questionnaire during a patient intake interview? A) To diagnose the specific subtype of schizophrenia B) To screen quickly for potential alcohol use disorder or dependence C) To evaluate the severity of major depression D) To test abstract thinking and cognitive memory limits

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: CAGE is a 4-item screening tool used to detect alcohol dependence (Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener).

Q58. A client undergoing detoxification from alcohol develops severe disorientation, visual hallucinations, body tremors, a heart rate of 130 bpm, and a temperature of 38.8∘C on day 3 of admission. What medication class is the drug of choice to treat this? A) Typical antipsychotics (e.g., Haloperidol) B) Benzodiazepines (e.g., Chlordiazepoxide or Diazepam) C) Beta-blockers (e.g., Propranolol) D) Opioid antagonists (e.g., Naloxone)

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: The client is experiencing Delirium Tremens, a medical emergency. Benzodiazepines are the gold standard treatment to provide cross-tolerance, stabilize vital signs, and prevent withdrawal seizures.

Q59. A patient regularly chews Khat (Catha edulis) in large quantities. After stopping abruptly, what withdrawal symptoms are most commonly observed? A) Life-threatening grand mal seizures and tremors B) Lethargy, vivid unpleasant dreams, mild depression, and increased appetite C) Severe pupillary constriction, diarrhea, and rhinorrhea D) High fever and lead-pipe muscle rigidity

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Khat is a central nervous system stimulant containing cathinone. Stimulant withdrawal is generally characterized by a crash effect, including fatigue, depression, hyperphagia, and sleep disturbances rather than life-threatening physical signs.

Q60. Which of the following defense mechanisms is most frequently utilized by individuals experiencing substance use disorders to justify their behavior and minimize its impact? A) Denial and Rationalization B) Sublimation and Reaction Formation C) Intellectualization and Introjection D) Projection and Regression

• Correct Answer: A
• Rationale: Denial (refusing to acknowledge the problem) and rationalization (making excuses for the usage) are common defense mechanisms used to protect the individual from facing the consequences of addiction.

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Thematic Area 7: Personality & Eating Disorders

Q61. A 24-year-old female client is admitted following a non-suicidal self-injury gesture (cutting her wrists). She exhibits a pervasive pattern of unstable interpersonal relationships, marked impulsivity, severe fear of abandonment, and chronic feelings of emptiness. What personality disorder does this describe? A) Antisocial Personality Disorder B) Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) C) Histrionic Personality Disorder D) Narcissistic Personality Disorder

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: BPD is characterized by instability in affect, interpersonal relationships, and self-image, along with impulsivity and recurrent self-harm or suicidal behavior.

Q62. A male client on the forensic psychiatric ward has a history of legal issues, shows a complete disregard for the rights of others, fails to conform to social norms, lacks remorse for hurting others, and is deceitful. This fits the profile of: A) Schizoid Personality Disorder B) Borderline Personality Disorder C) Antisocial Personality Disorder D) Dependent Personality Disorder

• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: Antisocial Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others, starting in adolescence and continuing into adulthood.

Q63. A client on the unit attempts to manipulate the staff by praise and splitting—telling one nurse, “You’re the only good nurse here; the night shift nurse is terrible and cruel.” How should the nursing team respond? A) Agree with the client to maintain good rapport B) Establish clear, consistent boundaries across all shifts and communicate regularly as a team C) Confront the client angrily about their lies D) Request that the night shift nurse be reassigned to another unit

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Consistency and clear boundary setting across the healthcare team prevent splitting behavior, a common dynamic in clients with Borderline Personality Disorder.

Q64. A client presents with an intense fear of gaining weight, a significantly distorted body image, and a refusal to maintain a minimally normal body weight, resulting in severe emargination and amenorrhea. What is the diagnosis? A) Bulimia Nervosa B) Anorexia Nervosa C) Binge Eating Disorder D) Pica Syndrome

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Anorexia Nervosa is defined by a restriction of energy intake leading to significantly low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight, and body image disturbance.

Q65. A client with Bulimia Nervosa is admitted to the unit. Which nursing intervention is a priority following meal times? A) Encourage the client to sleep for 2 hours B) Monitor the client closely for 1 to 2 hours after meals to prevent secretive purging or self-induced vomiting C) Allow the client to exercise in their room to relieve stress ) Weigh the client immediately after each meal

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Clients with bulimia often engage in compensatory purging behaviors shortly after meals. Restricting access to bathrooms and monitoring them post-meals helps break this cycle.

Q66. A young man lives a completely solitary life, shows no interest in social relationships, has no close friends, and appears indifferent to praise or criticism, with a flat, detached emotional expression. This describes: A) Schizotypal Personality Disorder B) Schizoid Personality Disorder C) Avoidant Personality Disorder D) Paranoid Personality Disorder

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Schizoid Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression.

Q67. A client displays an excessive need to be the center of attention, utilizes shifting, dramatic, and theatrical emotional expressions, and wears overly provocative clothing to gain approval. This behavior aligns with: A) Narcissistic Personality Disorder ) Histrionic Personality Disorder C) Borderline Personality Disorder D) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Histrionic Personality Disorder centers on a pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior.

Q68. What is the key diagnostic difference between a client with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and a client with Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD)? A) OCD is ego-syntonic, while OCPD is ego-dystonic B) OCD involves clear, intrusive obsessions and repetitive compulsions, whereas OCPD is a pervasive personality style focused on perfectionism, orderliness, and control without discrete obsessions/compulsions C) OCPD is treated with antipsychotics, while OCD requires surgery D) OCD occurs only in children, while OCPD occurs only in older adults

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: OCD involves distress-inducing obsessions and compulsions (ego-dystonic). OCPD is characterized by a generalized preoccupation with order, perfectionism, and control, which the individual typically views as correct and rational (ego-syntonic).

Q69. A client is admitted with severe Anorexia Nervosa. During the first week of nutritional rehabilitation via tube feeding, the nurse must monitor serum electrolytes closely to prevent which life-threatening complication? A) Metabolic syndrome B) Refeeding syndrome (characterized by severe hypophosphatemia) C) Acute pancreatitis D) Hyperkalemic crisis

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Refeeding syndrome occurs when nutritional support is reintroduced too rapidly in starved patients. The shift from catabolism to anabolism drives phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium into cells, causing severe hypophosphatemia and cardiovascular issues.

Q70. Which personality disorder belongs to Cluster A (the odd, eccentric cluster) according to the DSM-5 classification system? A) Borderline Personality Disorder B) Paranoid Personality Disorder C) Antisocial Personality Disorder D) Dependent Personality Disorder

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Cluster A includes Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal personality disorders, characterized by odd or eccentric presentations.

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Thematic Area 8: Child & Adolescent Psychiatry

Q71. A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic because he cannot sit still in class, frequently interrupts others, fails to follow instructions, loses his school materials, and is easily distracted. These symptoms are present at home and school. What is the likely diagnosis? A) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) B) Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) C) Conduct Disorder D) Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: ADHD is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning across multiple settings.

Q72. A child demonstrates significant impairment in social interaction and communication, displays restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior (such as lining up toys or hand-flapping), and shows intense distress during minor routine changes. This points to: A) ADHD B) Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) C) Separation Anxiety Disorder D) Intellectual Disability

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: ASD is characterized by persistent deficits in social communication and interaction, alongside restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities.

Q73. A 14-year-old adolescent has a history of stealing, skipping school, setting fire to property, initiating physical fights, and cruelty to animals. What diagnosis is supported by this pattern of behavior? A) Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) B) Conduct Disorder C) ADHD ) Antisocial Personality Disorder

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Conduct Disorder involves a repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior in children or adolescents that violates the basic rights of others and major age-appropriate societal norms.

Q74. Which medication class is considered first-line pharmacological treatment for ADHD, acting to improve focus and impulse control by increasing dopamine and norepinephrine levels in the prefrontal cortex? A) Central Nervous System Stimulants (e.g., Methylphenidate) B) Typical Antipsychotics (e.g., Thiopental) C) Tricyclic Antidepressants D) Long-acting Benzodiazepines

• Correct Answer: A
• Rationale: Stimulants like methylphenidate are first-line agents for ADHD, helping regulate circuits in the prefrontal cortex to improve attention and impulse control.

Q75. A 6-year-old child exhibits a persistent, angry, and irritable mood, frequently argues with adults, refuses to comply with rules, and deliberately annoys others, but does not engage in physical aggression or property destruction. This describes: A) Conduct Disorder ) Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) C) Separation Anxiety Disorder D) Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: ODD involves an ongoing pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness, without the serious violation of law or rights seen in conduct disorder.

Q76. When teaching parents about managing a child with ADHD at home, which behavioral strategy should the nurse emphasize? A) Provide complex, multi-step instructions to challenge the child’s brain B) Establish a highly structured daily routine with clear, consistent expectations and a token-economy reward system C) Change the household schedule daily to keep the child engaged D) Ignore all negative behaviors and avoid setting boundaries

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Children with ADHD benefit from structure, predictable routines, clear rules, and immediate positive reinforcement for acceptable behavior.

Q77. A 9-year-old child experiences excessive, developmentally inappropriate anxiety when separated from their primary caregiver, refusing to attend school or sleep alone due to fears that harm will come to the parent. What is the diagnosis? A) Social Anxiety Disorder B) Separation Anxiety Disorder C) Generalized Anxiety Disorder D) School Phobia

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Separation Anxiety Disorder involves excessive fear or anxiety concerning separation from those to whom the individual is attached, beyond what is typical for the developmental stage.

Q78. A child with Autism Spectrum Disorder is admitted to the pediatric unit for an infection. To minimize distress, how should the nurse arrange the environment? A) Place the child in a busy multi-bed ward with a television playing continuously B) Provide a quiet, private room with minimal sensory overload, and maintain consistent nursing assignments C) Frequent changes to the room arrangement to stimulate interaction D) Limit parental presence to 1 hour per day

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Individuals with ASD are prone to sensory overload and rely on predictability. A low-stimulus environment and consistent staff help reduce anxiety.

Q79. Which neurodevelopmental condition is characterized by deficits in both intellectual functioning (reasoning, problem-solving) and adaptive functioning (conceptual, social, and practical life skills) starting during the developmental period? A) Specific Learning Disorder B) Intellectual Disability (Intellectual Developmental Disorder) C) Autism Spectrum Disorder D) Tourette’s Disorder

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Diagnosis of Intellectual Disability requires deficits in intellectual functions confirmed by assessment and testing, along with deficits in adaptive functioning that limit independence.

Q80. A 10-year-old child presents with multiple motor tics (blinking, shoulder shrugging) and at least one vocal tic (throat clearing, grunting) that have persisted for over a year. What is the diagnosis? A) Transient Tic Disorder B) Tourette’s Disorder C) Stereotypic Movement Disorder D) Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Tourette’s Disorder requires both multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics to be present at some time during the illness, though not necessarily concurrently, for more than 1 year.

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Thematic Area 9: Cognitive Disorders (Delirium & Dementia)

Q82. An 82-year-old client is admitted with a urinary tract infection. Over the past 24 hours, she becomes acutely confused, disoriented to time and place, experiences visual hallucinations, and her level of consciousness fluctuates throughout the day. What condition should the nurse suspect? A) Alzheimer’s Disease B) Delirium C) Vascular Dementia D) Amnestic Syndrome

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Delirium is characterized by an acute onset, fluctuating course, disturbances in attention, and altered level of consciousness, typically triggered by an underlying medical condition like an infection.

Q82. What is the primary pathological mechanism underlying Vascular Dementia? A) Extracellular deposition of amyloid-beta plaques and neurofibrillary tangles B) Brain damage caused by multiple ischemic strokes or cerebrovascular disease resulting in step-wise cognitive decline C) Chronic deficiency of Vitamin B12 D) Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Vascular dementia results from ischemic or hemorrhagic brain injury caused by cerebrovascular disease, often presenting with a classic step-wise decline in cognitive function.

Q83. A client with advanced Alzheimer’s disease is unable to recognize familiar objects, such as a toothbrush or a spoon, despite having intact motor and sensory function. The nurse documents this cognitive deficit as: A) Aphasia B) Apraxia C) Agnosia D) Amnesia

• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: Agnosia is the failure to recognize or identify familiar objects despite intact sensory function, a common feature as neurodegenerative dementias progress.

Q84. Which of the following features helps differentiate Delirium from Dementia? A) Delirium has a slow, progressive, and irreversible course B) Delirium features an acute onset, fluctuating consciousness, and is usually reversible by treating the underlying cause C) Dementia never features memory impairment D) Delirium causes permanent structural brain atrophy

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Delirium develops rapidly over hours or days and is transient and reversible, whereas dementia is characterized by a gradual, progressive, and chronic decline in cognition.

Q85. A client with moderate dementia routinely becomes more agitated, confused, and prone to wandering in the late afternoon and early evening hours. This clinical phenomenon is known as: A) Confabulation B) Sundown syndrome C) Preservation D) Hyperorality

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Sundown syndrome describes a pattern of worsening confusion, agitation, and behavioral disruptions in clients with dementia during late afternoon or evening hours.

Q86. What is the primary nursing consideration when caring for a client with severe delirium who is highly agitated and disoriented? A) Keep the room dark and silent with no human contact B) Ensure physical safety, provide a well-lit, low-stimulus environment, use frequent reality reorientation, and identify the underlying physiological cause C) Restrain the client immediately to prevent movement D) Administer high doses of barbiturates continuously

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Safety and identifying the medical cause are top priorities. Environmental adjustments (adequate lighting, reorientation cues) help minimize illusions and agitation.

Q87. A nurse observes an older adult client with dementia inventing detailed but false stories to answer questions about what they did yesterday afternoon. This unconscious defense mechanism to cover memory loss is called: A) Aphasia B) Perseveration C) Confabulation D) Flight of ideas

• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: Confabulation involves filling in memory gaps with fabricated or distorted information, common in amnestic disorders and dementia as a way to maintain self-esteem.

Q88. Which class of medications is prescribed to slow cognitive decline in mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease by increasing the availability of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts? A) Cholinesterase Inhibitors (e.g., Donepezil or Rivastigmine) B) NMDA Receptor Antagonists (e.g., Memantine) C) Dopamine Agonists ) Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors

• Correct Answer: A
• Rationale: Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, helping support cognitive function in early to middle stages of Alzheimer’s disease.

Q89. An older adult client with advanced dementia has lost the ability to carry out purposeful motor activities, such as dressing or buttoning a shirt, despite having no physical paralysis. This is termed: A) Agnosia B) Apraxia C) Aphonia D) Ataxia

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Apraxia is the impaired ability to execute learned, purposeful motor activities despite intact motor and sensory function.

Q90. To support orientation and reduce anxiety for an institutionalized client with early-stage Alzheimer’s disease, which environmental intervention is most appropriate? A) Keep all walls bare and free of any objects or markers B) Place large, easily readable clocks, calendars, and familiar family photographs in the client’s room C) Rotate the client’s bedroom weekly to stimulate adaptation D) Turn off all lights at night to ensure total darkness

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Visual orientation aids like calendars, clocks, and personal items help anchor the client to reality and reduce confusion and anxiety.

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Thematic Area 10: Psychiatric Emergencies & Crisis Intervention

Q91. A client is admitted to the emergency unit following a major earthquake that destroyed his home. He is weeping, hyperventilating, and unable to make basic decisions. What type of crisis is this client experiencing? A) Maturational (developmental) crisis B) Situational crisis C) Adventitious (social/natural disaster) crisis D) Internal psychiatric crisis

• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: Adventitious crises are accidental, uncommon, and unexpected events, such as natural disasters, epidemics, or acts of violence, that affect communities.

Q92. What is the primary, immediate goal of crisis intervention nursing care? A) Restructure the client’s entire personality and childhood trauma history B) Return the client to their pre-crisis level of functioning and psychological equilibrium C) Cure any underlying chronic major mental illness D) Transfer the client to a long-term psychiatric asylum

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Crisis intervention is a short-term, focused model designed to resolve an immediate crisis and help the client regain their baseline level of psychological functioning.

Q93. A client on the inpatient unit states, “Life isn’t worth living anymore. I wish I could just sleep and never wake up again.” What is the immediate priority action for the nurse? A) Leave the client alone to allow them time to reflect privately B) Administer an extra dose of sedatives and lock the room door C) Assess the client directly for suicide risk by asking about specific plans and intent, and implement appropriate safety precautions D) Inform the client that making such statements is attention-seeking behavior

• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: Direct statements about the value of life require immediate suicide risk assessment and intervention to ensure patient safety.

Q94. When implementing a “One-to-One (1:1) Suicide Watch” precaution for a high-risk suicidal client, what does this protocol require of the nurse? A) Check on the client visually once every hour during the shift B) Remain within arm’s reach of the client at all times, keeping them in direct line of sight 24 hours a day, including during bathroom use C) Pair the client with another depressed patient to provide mutual support D) Keep the client under constant video monitoring from a central desk only

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: High-risk 1:1 suicide precautions require constant, uninterrupted visual observation within arm’s reach to prevent self-harm or suicide attempts.

Q95. An angry client stands in the dayroom with clenched fists, shouting at a peer, and appears ready to strike them. Which positioning strategy should the nurse use when approaching the client? A) Stand directly face-to-face with arms crossed to show authority B) Maintain an open posture, stand slightly to the side (at an angle) out of arm’s reach, and ensure a clear escape route is available C) Sneak up quietly from behind to tackle the client before they react D) Sit on the floor in front of the client to show submissiveness

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Standing at an angle and out of arm’s reach is less threatening, preserves personal space, and allows both the nurse and client a path of egress if the situation escalates.

Q96. A woman arrives at the emergency crisis center reporting a sexual assault that occurred 2 hours ago. What is the nursing priority during the immediate post-assault examination phase? A) Advise the client to take a thorough hot shower immediately to feel clean B) Provide a safe, supportive, non-judgmental environment, address physical injuries, and coordinate a forensic evidence collection exam with consent C) Inform the client that she should have been more careful at night D) Focus immediately on long-term psychoanalytic therapy sessions

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Immediate care emphasizes psychological safety, physical assessment/treatment, and preserving forensic evidence with the client’s informed consent.

Q97. During a crisis intervention session, the nurse helps a client identify their available support systems and past coping mechanisms. What type of balancing factors are these according to Aguilera’s crisis model? A) Distorting cognitive mechanisms B) Situational supports and coping mechanisms that prevent a crisis state C) Biological anomalies causing emotional distress D) Developmental milestones that cannot be altered

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Aguilera’s model states that the development of a crisis depends on balancing factors: realistic perception of the event, adequate situational support, and effective coping mechanisms.

Q98. A client on the psychiatric unit becomes physically violent, throwing chairs and attacking staff. Emergency physical restraints are applied. How frequently must the nurse check the client’s vital signs, skin integrity, and peripheral circulation at the restraint sites? A) Once every 8 hours B) Once per shift C) At least every 15 minutes (or according to institutional protocol for continuous observation) D) Only when the client requests a check

• Correct Answer: C
• Rationale: Restrained patients require close, continuous observation and documentation (at least every 15 minutes) to monitor circulation, skin integrity, safety, and readiness for restraint removal.

Q99. What type of crisis occurs when an individual struggles to adapt to normal, predictable life transitions, such as moving from adolescence to adulthood, marriage, or retirement? A) Situational crisis B) Maturational (developmental) crisis C) Adventitious crisis D) Traumatic shock crisis

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Maturational crises are predictable patches of developmental growth and transition that require an individual to develop new coping mechanisms.

Q100. A psychiatric nurse is debriefing with a team following a severe patient assault incident on the unit. What is the primary purpose of this post-incident staff debriefing? A) Assign blame to the staff member who was injured B) Review the event, provide emotional support, evaluate the effectiveness of the intervention, and identify areas to improve safety protocols C) Prepare legal documentation to penalize the client D) Close the ward down permanently to avoid future risks

• Correct Answer: B
• Rationale: Post-incident debriefing helps process emotional reactions, analyze the management of the emergency, and refine safety protocols for the unit.